Most New Testament versions report in Matthew 27: 46 that, at the moment justprior to the death of Jesus on the cross, He called out to God, asking why God had forsakenHim. Is that what Jesus really meant when He called to God? The verse in question as recordedin the King James Version is written below. Following thisis how thirteen other versions record what Jesus said. There is very little difference exceptfor the use of a verb other than "forsake."

Mark reports much the same as Matthew, thus suggesting that the informationin these two gospels came from the same source. Luke and John do not record this finalstatement, but different ones. Below are what the King JamesVersion records in these three gospels.

Mark 15: 34
And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi,Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsakenme?

Luke 23: 46
And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thyhands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.

John 19: 30
When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It isfinished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.

It is generally accepted that in Matthew 27: 46 Jesus was quoting Psalm22: 1. This verse is written below as the King James Version and seven other versionsrecord it.

I have heard it stated in Christian circles that when Jesus took on the sinof the world, God turned away because He cannot look upon sin. This means that Jesus was leftby Himself to suffer. The three scriptural references quoted below show that God does notforsake the righteous. Four versions having very different backgrounds are used.

This answer was presented in a Messianic Jewish class. When Jesus made thecall, He wanted the people to recognize that He was referring to all of Psalm 22, not just thefirst verse. The people would recognize the quote and later would read all the psalm. Then,they would know that what had just happened had been prophesied long before. A few key verses(16-19, 24) are quoted here from the King James Version.

Psalm 22: 16-19, 24
For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked haveenclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet. I may tell all my bones: they look and stareupon me. They part my garments among them, and cast lots upon my vesture. But be not thou farfrom me, O Lord: O my strength, haste thee to help me. For he hath not despised nor abhorred theaffliction of the afflicted; neither hath he hid his face from him; but when he cried unto him,he heard.

In the introduction to his translation of the Bible, George Lamsa criticizesthe various versions in their rendering of Matthew 27: 46. He points out that what they say isin contradiction to the King James Version of John 16: 32 and several instances of the OldTestament (which he does not state). Included here are several verses from theLamsa Bible.

Psalm 22: 1
My God, my God, why hast thou let me to live? and yet thou hastdelayed my salvation from me, because of the words of my folly.

Matthew 27: 46
And about the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice and said, Eli, Eli, lemanashabakthani! My God, my God, for this was I spared!
Footnote: This was mydestiny.

Mark 15: 34
And at the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lemana shabakthani!which means, My God, my God, for this was I spared.
Footnote: "which means" usedby Mark to explain translation from one Aramaic dialect to another.

Luke 23: 46
Then Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, O my Father, into thyhands I commit my spirit. He said this and it was finished.

John 19: 30
When Jesus drank the vinegar, he said, It is fulfilled; and he bowedhis head and gave up the spirit.

The first answer to the question presents untenable conclusions when thethree passages are considered. Using Deuteronomy 4: 31, God would have broken His promise.Using 2 Chronicles 15: 2, Jesus would have forsaken God in order for God to forsake Jesus.Using Psalm 37: 25, 28, Jesus would not have been considered righteous, but wicked.

The second answer is in keeping with the actions of Jesus. He constantly toldHis listeners to read the Scriptures for they told of Him. He knew that the people did notunderstand what was happening. However, He knew that they had been taught the sayings of theprophets from childhood. According to this answer, He was not implying that God had forsakenHim, but He was pointing out to the people the psalmist's prophecy. Thus, He would not be incontradiction to Deuteronomy 4: 31, 2 Chronicles 15: 2, Psalm 37: 25, 28, or John 16: 32.

The third answer suggests a misinterpretation in all the other versions. Canthis be the only correct one? George Lamsa notes that the discrepancies among the versionscause much contention and division among sincere people who read the Bible. Whether or not hisinterpretation is correct, his renderings of Psalm 22: 1 and Matthew 27: 46 are consistentwith the other passages quoted from the King James Version here.

I personally feel that answers 2 and 3 have more merit than answer 1. Theremay be other explanations of which I am not aware. Each Christian must make his own decisionas to what he believes is right. At the same time, in recognizing the problems of translating,he must not lose sight of the message of the Bible. The book itself is merely the carrier ofthat message. The book show the weakness of man, but its message shows the strength of God.